No if you still have the title in your name , and not signed over to the other party , or the othere party dose not have a reciept you gave him for money he gave you , your good to go
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Submitted 247 days ago...
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Submitted 241 days ago...
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Submitted 241 days ago...
Due ti the extenuating circumstances , which no money or title exchanged hands , i don't see how a judge would rule in the favor of the other party , unless you stated on the bll of sale that you received money or other goods for the vehicle, in that case it would stand as a receipt for the vehicle,
Did you not place or state a lien or balance due on the bill of sale , what i am saying did you just give him a clear and free bill of sale ,if the bill of sale states there is a balance due , the other party will have to show a reciept for that balance , why did you hold the title ?
I don't fully understand what the conditions
of the sale where or what your actions where in this particular situation , maybe a mistake seem less serious than it first appeared
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